Dong, why is it nga wala man na colonize sa Spain ning atong neighboring Asian countries?
By the early to mid 16th century, most of Central and South America was conquered by Spain and with it led to the creation of the Viceroyalties of Nueva Espana, La Plata, and Peru. During this time, the Spanish Empire was consolidating its new-found possessions and with it led to the epoch known by historians as
La migración or
RaÃz Española, which was the largest migration of humans to the new world prior to the 18th and 19th centuries. It was in this time when tens of thousands of Spaniards colonized the new world.
To secure their empire, Spain made it policy to proliferate not only Hispanic culture to the new world; which ranged in Roman Catholicism for the indigenous Indios, Roman Law, Spanish Court, Social etiquette, the Hispanized agricultural system of the landed elite (haciendas, encomiendas). And most importantly, the Spanish gene seed.
After Spain's almost-inexhaustible armies defeated the civilizations of the Ahuatls, the Incas and the Aztecas, they were commanded by their generallisimos to 'spread' Spain in those lands. Per se it meant in breeding with the local Indio females; an amalgamation of European and Indio. We see this in Mexico and Latin America where most of hte population are Spanish mestizos or have some kind of Spanish blood. The reason for such a wide-spread Mestizo population in Nueva Espana (Mexico and its territories) was due to the large Azteca population.
However in South American viceroyalties of La Plata as well as Peru, there was a greater Peninsulare, Creole population. The reason for this is because there were more Spaniards that came to the area to colonize and settle it due to the rich flat lands of South America as well as the vast natural resources. A landed aristocracy grew in South America, which spearheaded for more European immigration to the region. This is why there are more Caucasian or pure Creoles in nations such as Argentina, Chile, Columbia etc as compared to Central America, which has a prevalence of Indio and Mestizo population.
Nonetheless, what happened in the three viceroyalties was the effect of agricultural revolution, and the development of a lucrative domestic trade economy and port trade.
The discovery of the Philippines was ideological for the Spanish Empire. (Considering the fact that the target of Columbus and the Spanish expedition in 1492 targeted to find Cathay and the rich islands of the Malaccas and not the New World--which they found and landed accidentally).
The Philippines was pivotal for Spain due to its geographic location and its proximity to China (Cathay as it was once called). Spain took advantage of the Philippines as a way to secure its lucrative plans for trade with China and the Orient. To secure this, it was imperative for the Empire to completely Hispanicize the Philippines. To make the Philippines 'Spanish'. And would therefore be its 'base' of operations in the Orient.
Spain sent thousands upon thousands of its priests and monks with cooperation from the Episcopacy and the Vatican (which Spain had influence on, due to the fact that Spain at this time controlled all of Central and Southern Italy, Sardinia, the Netherlands, parts of southern France and territories of the Holy Roman Empire (Germany). The Vatican, therefore, acquiesced to Spain's decrees.
From initial reports of the Philippines (from the remaining survivors of Magellan's crew) it was apparent that the Philippines, like the natives of Central and South America, were regionalistic. With this in mind, Spain utilized the same tactics it used to the Indios of the Americas. By pitting indios against indios. As Spain took advantage of the Ahuatls and the Toltecs to fight against the Aztecas. Spain pitted Tagalogs against Illocanos, and visayans against visayans to conquer the entire Archipelago. Once conquered, Spain sent thousands of its priests and friars with decrees to Evangelize the islands. As the indios of the Philippines were regarded as 'blasphemic heathens'.
The Filipino Indios, ironically, converted to Christianity relatively peacefully. Most of Luzon and the Visayas adopted Christianity and applied their own regional flavors to it, whereas the Moro South actually fought Christian Evangelization.
When the Islands were organized into political units, developed port trade, and were 'Hispanicized' it became the strategic link between the trade lanes of China and the Spanish Empire.
The rich goods of China and the Orient were taken to the Philippines, and from there would be shipped to Nueva Espana of the Spanish Empire vis-a-vis the Acapulco Galleon Trade. Which lasted form 1570 till the independence of Mexico in the early 19th century, a result of the Peninsulare War.
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As for the question why Spain did not conquer other countries in Asia; the reason is because Spain did not want to administer new lands. Most of Asia was 'heathen' according to the collective mind of Christian-Catholic Spain. Though Spain had minor influences with trade lanes in China, Siam, Malaccas and Japan, it did not actively support expansionist policies in Asia.
The reason for this was strategic. Spain, at the time of the late 16th century and the 17th century, was already over-stretched as it was. Ruled almost 1/4th of the world's land mass. And by the 17th century over 100 million souls lived within the Spanish Empire. Governing such a vast empire was troublesome, especially while competing with growing European rivals such as England, France, Germany and Portugal.
Supporting a massive expedition to conquer another foreign land in the Asian continent would have bankrupted Spain and would have exhausted her armies, which were already overstretched. This is why the Philippines remains the only Spanish territory in Asia-Pacific. And due to that fact, the Royal Court of Philip II and Charles II declared the Philippines be a Royal Colony of the Empire.
The Philippines, is and was, regarded by the Spanish Empire as the 'Jewel of the Spanish Empire'. Spain's only bastion in the Orient; and for almost half a millenia, considered the only 'Spanish' soil in Asia.
pilipinas ramay makaya nila
Partially correct. Spain could have easily conquered Portugese-then-Dutch Malaccas, due to the shear might of Spain's Royal Navy, which wouldn't be ecclipsed by any other until the late mid 18th century. Spain's Armies numbered in the Millions of men. However, considering the fact that she ruled over 2 massive continents (North America and South America) as well as its possessions in Europe, and territories in Africa, it made it quite difficult to support further expansionist policies in the Orient.
Additionally, Spain's presence in the Orient was primarily to trade and take advantage of the richness of Cathay (China) and the Indies. Not to conquer it.
To do so would affect Spain's relations with China--to the detriment of its trade relations.
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