Author Topic: How did the Church Fathers explain the perpetual virginity of Mary?  (Read 3712 times)

Lorenzo

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How did the Church Fathers explain the perpetual virginity of Mary?


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Re: How did the Church Fathers explain the perpetual virginity of Mary?
« Reply #2 on: November 23, 2012, 02:24:22 PM »
Mary was only virgin before the birth of Jesus.

Matthew 12:46-50

Jesus’ Mother and Brothers

46 While Jesus was still talking to the crowd, his mother and brothers stood outside, wanting to speak to him. 47 Someone told him, “Your mother and brothers are standing outside, wanting to speak to you.”

48 He replied to him, “Who is my mother, and who are my brothers?” 49 Pointing to his disciples, he said, “Here are my mother and my brothers. 50 For whoever does the will of my Father in heaven is my brother and sister and mother.”

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Re: How did the Church Fathers explain the perpetual virginity of Mary?
« Reply #3 on: November 23, 2012, 04:30:59 PM »
lisod gyud ni i-explain. naa koy student diri who asked me about this but i couldn't give an answer. i just told her daghan nahitabo sauna nga dli ma-explain hihihihihi

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Re: How did the Church Fathers explain the perpetual virginity of Mary?
« Reply #4 on: November 23, 2012, 08:08:12 PM »
lisod gyud ni i-explain. naa koy student diri who asked me about this but i couldn't give an answer. i just told her daghan nahitabo sauna nga dli ma-explain hihihihihi
Naay mga verses sa Bible nga nagpamatuod nga adunay half brothers si Jesus. Daghang mga letrato sa mga Catholic books nga makita si Joseph namanday, mitabang si Jesus, makita pod si Mary. Imposible sa ilang pag-ipon nga bana og asawa nga virgin lang gihapon. Mary and Joseph are mortal beings.

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fdaray

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Re: How did the Church Fathers explain the perpetual virginity of Mary?
« Reply #5 on: November 23, 2012, 08:17:18 PM »
lisod gyud ni i-explain. naa koy student diri who asked me about this but i couldn't give an answer. i just told her daghan nahitabo sauna nga dli ma-explain hihihihihi

More verses to prove that Jesus has brothers.

The family of Jesus
Jesus grew up in a sizable family that included four half brothers—James, Joses, Simon and Judas (who would later write the epistle of Jude)—and "His sisters," showing there were at least two (Matthew 13:55-56

Because the names of Christ's brothers are passed down to us in their Greek forms, it's easy to lose sight of how typically Jewish Jesus' family was. Jesus Himself was Jewish (Hebrew 7:14), because both Mary and Joseph were descended from the Israelite tribe of Judah (Matthew 1:1-16
















; Luke 3:23
- 38). Jesus' Hebrew name Yeshua (or Joshua)—the same as the Israelite hero who conquered the Promised Land—means "God is salvation" (see Matthew 1:21
).
The name of Jesus' mother, Mary, is a shortened form of Miriam , the sister of Moses and Aaron. Joseph ( Yosef in Hebrew), Jesus' stepfather, was ultimately named for the Hebrew patriarch Joseph , one of the 12 sons of Jacob and father of the Israelite tribes of Ephraim and Manasseh.
As for Jesus' half brothers, James is the anglicized Greek form of the Hebrew Ya'akov, or Jacob, the same name as that of the Hebrew patriarch who was the son of Isaac and the grandson of Abraham. Joses is another form of Joseph. Simon's Hebrew name was Simeon, the name of another of Jacob's sons and father of one of the 12 tribes of Israel.
The Hebrew name of Judas (or Jude) was Yehudah (rendered Judah in English), the name of another of Jacob's 12 sons, from which the word Jew is derived. The popularity of these names is evident in that all of them are used, often repeatedly, for other people mentioned in the New Testament.

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Re: How did the Church Fathers explain the perpetual virginity of Mary?
« Reply #6 on: November 23, 2012, 09:09:22 PM »
Mary was only virgin before the birth of Jesus.

Matthew 12:46-50

Jesus’ Mother and Brothers

46 While Jesus was still talking to the crowd, his mother and brothers stood outside, wanting to speak to him. 47 Someone told him, “Your mother and brothers are standing outside, wanting to speak to you.”

48 He replied to him, “Who is my mother, and who are my brothers?” 49 Pointing to his disciples, he said, “Here are my mother and my brothers. 50 For whoever does the will of my Father in heaven is my brother and sister and mother.”

oops, if we must be literal about this thus...

The Church has always understood these passages as not referring to other children of the Virgin Mary. In fact James and Joseph, "brothers of Jesus," are the sons of another Mary, a disciple of Christ, whom St. Matthew significantly calls "the other Mary." They are close relations of Jesus, according to an Old Testament expression. (Catechism of the Catholic Church 500)- http://www.catholic.com/

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Re: How did the Church Fathers explain the perpetual virginity of Mary?
« Reply #7 on: November 23, 2012, 09:13:39 PM »
for those keenly interested in this aspect of catholic doctrine, the article The Case for Mary's Perpetual Virginity explains it in accessible layman's terms.  here's the link: http://www.catholic.com/magazine/articles/the-case-for-mary%E2%80%99s-perpetual-virginity

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Re: How did the Church Fathers explain the perpetual virginity of Mary?
« Reply #9 on: November 23, 2012, 10:46:39 PM »
Mary was only virgin before the birth of Jesus.

Matthew 12:46-50

Jesus’ Mother and Brothers

46 While Jesus was still talking to the crowd, his mother and brothers stood outside, wanting to speak to him. 47 Someone told him, “Your mother and brothers are standing outside, wanting to speak to you.”

48 He replied to him, “Who is my mother, and who are my brothers?” 49 Pointing to his disciples, he said, “Here are my mother and my brothers. 50 For whoever does the will of my Father in heaven is my brother and sister and mother.”




Most Protestants claim that Mary bore children other than Jesus. To support their claim, these Protestants refer to the biblical passages which mention the "brethren of the Lord." As explained in the Catholic Answers tract Brethren of the Lord, neither the Gospel accounts nor the early Christians attest to the notion that Mary bore other children besides Jesus. The faithful knew, through the witness of Scripture and Tradition, that Jesus was Mary’s only child and that she remained a lifelong virgin.

An important historical document which supports the teaching of Mary’s perpetual virginity is the Protoevangelium of James, which was written probably less than sixty years after the conclusion of Mary’s earthly life (around A.D. 120), when memories of her life were still vivid in the minds of many.

According to the world-renowned patristics scholar, Johannes Quasten: "The principal aim of the whole writing [Protoevangelium of James] is to prove the perpetual and inviolate virginity of Mary before, in, and after the birth of Christ" (Patrology, 1:120–1).

To begin with, the Protoevangelium records that when Mary’s birth was prophesied, her mother, St. Anne, vowed that she would devote the child to the service of the Lord, as Samuel had been by his mother (1 Sam. 1:11). Mary would thus serve the Lord at the Temple, as women had for centuries (1 Sam. 2:22), and as Anna the prophetess did at the time of Jesus’ birth (Luke 2:36–37). A life of continual, devoted service to the Lord at the Temple meant that Mary would not be able to live the ordinary life of a child-rearing mother. Rather, she was vowed to a life of perpetual virginity.

However, due to considerations of ceremonial cleanliness, it was eventually necessary for Mary, a consecrated "virgin of the Lord," to have a guardian or protector who would respect her vow of virginity. Thus, according to the Protoevangelium, Joseph, an elderly widower who already had children, was chosen to be her spouse. (This would also explain why Joseph was apparently dead by the time of Jesus’ adult ministry, since he does not appear during it in the gospels, and since Mary is entrusted to John, rather than to her husband Joseph, at the crucifixion).

According to the Protoevangelium, Joseph was required to regard Mary’s vow of virginity with the utmost respect. The gravity of his responsibility as the guardian of a virgin was indicated by the fact that, when she was discovered to be with child, he had to answer to the Temple authorities, who thought him guilty of defiling a virgin of the Lord. Mary was also accused of having forsaken the Lord by breaking her vow. Keeping this in mind, it is an incredible insult to the Blessed Virgin to say that she broke her vow by bearing children other than her Lord and God, who was conceived through the power of the Holy Spirit.

The perpetual virginity of Mary has always been reconciled with the biblical references to Christ’s brethren through a proper understanding of the meaning of the term "brethren." The understanding that the brethren of the Lord were Jesus’ stepbrothers (children of Joseph) rather than half-brothers (children of Mary) was the most common one until the time of Jerome (fourth century). It was Jerome who introduced the possibility that Christ’s brethren were actually his cousins, since in Jewish idiom cousins were also referred to as "brethren." The Catholic Church allows the faithful to hold either view, since both are compatible with the reality of Mary’s perpetual virginity.

Today most Protestants are unaware of these early beliefs regarding Mary’s virginity and the proper interpretation of "the brethren of the Lord." And yet, the Protestant Reformers themselves—Martin Luther, John Calvin, and Ulrich Zwingli—honored the perpetual virginity of Mary and recognized it as the teaching of the Bible, as have other, more modern Protestants.




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Lorenzo

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Re: How did the Church Fathers explain the perpetual virginity of Mary?
« Reply #10 on: November 23, 2012, 10:47:23 PM »
The Protoevangelium of James

"And behold, an angel of the Lord stood by [St. Anne], saying, ‘Anne! Anne! The Lord has heard your prayer, and you shall conceive and shall bring forth, and your seed shall be spoken of in all the world.’ And Anne said, ‘As the Lord my God lives, if I beget either male or female, I will bring it as a gift to the Lord my God, and it shall minister to him in the holy things all the days of its life.’ . . . And [from the time she was three] Mary was in the temple of the Lord as if she were a dove that dwelt there" (Protoevangelium of James 4, 7 [A.D. 120]).

"And when she was twelve years old there was held a council of priests, saying, ‘Behold, Mary has reached the age of twelve years in the temple of the Lord. What then shall we do with her, lest perchance she defile the sanctuary of the Lord?’ And they said to the high priest, ‘You stand by the altar of the Lord; go in and pray concerning her, and whatever the Lord shall manifest to you, that also will we do.’ . . . [A]nd he prayed concerning her, and behold, an angel of the Lord stood by him saying, ‘Zechariah! Zechariah! Go out and assemble the widowers of the people and let them bring each his rod, and to whomsoever the Lord shall show a sign, his wife shall she be. . . . And Joseph [was chosen]. . . . And the priest said to Joseph, ‘You have been chosen by lot to take into your keeping the Virgin of the Lord.’ But Joseph refused, saying, ‘I have children, and I am an old man, and she is a young girl’" (ibid., 8–9).

"And Annas the scribe came to him [Joseph] . . . and saw that Mary was with child. And he ran away to the priest and said to him, ‘Joseph, whom you did vouch for, has committed a grievous crime.’ And the priest said, ‘How so?’ And he said, ‘He has defiled the virgin whom he received out of the temple of the Lord and has married her by stealth’" (ibid., 15).

"And the priest said, ‘Mary, why have you done this? And why have you brought your soul low and forgotten the Lord your God?’ . . . And she wept bitterly saying, ‘As the Lord my God lives, I am pure before him, and know not man’" (ibid.).



Retrieved from:
http://www.catholic.com/tracts/mary-ever-virgin




NIHIL OBSTAT: I have concluded that the materials
presented in this work are free of doctrinal or moral errors.
Bernadeane Carr, STL, Censor Librorum, August 10, 2004

IMPRIMATUR: In accord with 1983 CIC 827
permission to publish this work is hereby granted.
+Robert H. Brom, Bishop of San Diego, August 10, 2004


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Re: How did the Church Fathers explain the perpetual virginity of Mary?
« Reply #11 on: November 23, 2012, 11:16:26 PM »
Sometimes we are fed with the wrong analysis the church had imposed upon us that we are inclined to believe that everything is true to their liking. Mother Mary like all of us, first and foremost is a human being. conceiving our Lord jesus christ, she undergoes the same process that a woman is about to give birth, technically speaking she bore out Jesus from her womb, so she must go the process of labor to bring out the child jesus from her womb. On this case she is no longer a virgin.

The church only depicts the "Virgin" on mother mary to indicate that she was chosen to bore our Lord Jesus Christ which is a great distinction. But nevertheless the virgin in her as a human being that undergoes the child bearing process doesn't apply to her anymore. So in this case the church, disregards the human frailty that Mary has as a human being, and put her on a pedestal to proclaim her as a "Virgin pure in chaste" in conformity of which the grounds dictate in everything which is holy.



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Re: How did the Church Fathers explain the perpetual virginity of Mary?
« Reply #12 on: November 23, 2012, 11:38:11 PM »
Sometimes we are fed with the wrong analysis the church had imposed upon us that we are inclined to believe that everything is true to their liking. Mother Mary like all of us, first and foremost is a human being. conceiving our Lord jesus christ, she undergoes the same process that a woman is about to give birth, technically speaking she bore out Jesus from her womb, so she must go the process of labor to bring out the child jesus from her womb. On this case she is no longer a virgin.

The church only depicts the "Virgin" on mother mary to indicate that she was chosen to bore our Lord Jesus Christ which is a great distinction. But nevertheless the virgin in her as a human being that undergoes the child bearing process doesn't apply to her anymore. So in this case the church, disregards the human frailty that Mary has as a human being, and put her on a pedestal to proclaim her as a "Virgin pure in chaste" in conformity of which the grounds dictate in everything which is holy.



My friend, but she is different from all of us. Do you know how Mary was different? She was conceived without sin. From her womb, she would give birth to The Divine Word, The Creator of the Universe and from All Things Come From. From her womb, came forth Jesus Christ, The Only Begotten Son of God the Father.

Mary Is Holy because no where in biblical history where you will have an Angel kneel or prostrate themselves to give such salutatory remarks to a human. In fact, all throughout Old Testament, whenever humans come in contact with an Angel of the Lord, it is the human who will prostrate themselves in fear. An example was when it was revealed to Tobit and Raquel that it was the Archangel Raphael who was in their midst, they prostrated themselves. In the case of Mother Mary, God sent forth the Archangel Gabriel, not a mere angel, but an Archangel, one who stands before the Throne of God.

In the sixth month the angel Gabriel was sent from God to a city of Galilee named Nazareth, to a virgin betrothed to a man whose name was Joseph, of the house of David; and the virgin’s name was Mary. —Luke 1:26-27

Mary’s world radically changes when the angel Gabriel appears to her saying, “Hail, full of grace, the Lord is with you!” Understandably, Mary “was greatly troubled.” Imagine being home alone, walking into a room and finding an angel suddenly standing before you! However, Luke’s Gospel tells us that Mary is not startled simply by the angel itself but by the angel’s greeting: “She was greatly troubled at the saying, and considered in her mind what sort of greeting this might be.”

Why might Mary be so anxious about the angel’s words? First the angel says, “Hail, full of grace.” No one else in the Bible has ever been honored by an angel with such an exalted title. The Greek word kecharitomene, which here is translated “full of grace,” indicates that Mary already possesses God’s saving grace. The Lord has prepared her as a pure and holy temple in which the divine Christ child will dwell for nine months. Now the Son of God will reside in the womb of a woman who is full of grace.

The Catholic Church has often turned to this passage when commenting on Mary’s Immaculate Conception—the belief that Mary was conceived full of grace as God prepared her to be the mother of the Messiah.

Second, the angel says, “The Lord is with you!” Although many Catholics today are accustomed to hearing “The Lord be with you” repeated throughout the Mass, we might not be as familiar with the powerful significance these words originally had in ancient Judaism.

Many times in the Old Testament the words “the Lord is with you” signaled that someone was being called to a daunting task. In fact, these words often accompanied an invitation from God to play a crucial role in his plan of salvation. Such a divine calling generally entailed great sacrifices and challenged people to step out of their comfort zones and put their trust in God like never before.

At the same time, these words offered assurance that they would not face these challenges alone. They would not have to rely solely on their own abilities and talents because God’s presence and protection would be with them throughout their mission. Some of Israel’s greatest leaders—men like Isaac, Jacob, Joshua, Gideon and David—were told that God would be with them when they were commissioned to serve his people.

One of the most famous stories that illustrates the meaning of “the Lord is with you” can be found in Exodus, when God called Moses at the burning bush to confront Pharaoh and lead the Israelites out of slavery in Egypt. Feeling fearfully inadequate for the job, Moses responded the same way many people respond when they feel they are in over their heads: with a “Why me?”—and a disbelief that God would call him to this important task.

The Lord’s response to Moses’ fears is striking. God did not say to Moses, “I will send you to a Toastmasters’ workshop on public speaking,” or, “I’ll fly you out to a Franklin Covey seminar on effective leadership.” Rather, God told Moses the one thing he needed to hear most: “I will be with you” (Exodus 3:12).

Similarly, when Mary hears the angel say to her, “The Lord is with you,” she is not simply receiving a formal, pious salutation. With these words Mary probably realizes that a lot is being asked of her. Yet she will not have to face these difficulties alone. God will give her the one thing she needs most: the assurance that he will be with her.

Third, we learn more of Mary’s mission in Luke 1:30, as the angel says, “Do not be afraid, Mary, for you have found favor with God.” Like the phrase “The Lord is with you,” the notion of finding “favor with God” also would bring to mind Old Testament covenant mediators in God’s salvation plan.

Noah was the first person in the Bible described as finding favor with God (see Genesis 6:8 ). God saved him and his family from the flood and gave him a covenant to be the head of a renewed human family. The next person to find favor with God was Abraham (see Genesis 18:2-3). God made a covenant with him, calling on his family to be the instrument through which he would bring blessing to all the nations of the world. Similarly, Moses, the covenant mediator who led Israel out of slavery in Egypt, found favor with God (see Exodus 33:12-17), as did David, for whom God established a kingdom (see 2 Samuel 15:25).

Like these great covenant mediators of the Old Testament, Mary has found favor with God. Walking in the footsteps of Noah, Abraham, Moses and David, Mary now is called to serve as an important cooperator in the divine plan to bring salvation to all the nations.




Reference:
http://www.americancatholic.org/newsletters/cu/ac1205.asp

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bisdakangdako

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Re: How did the Church Fathers explain the perpetual virginity of Mary?
« Reply #13 on: November 24, 2012, 12:43:18 AM »
With all due respect sir, i can see how well versed you are with regards to Mary, Mother of Jesus our saviour. I for one don't go against for most of what has been said about mary which is justifiable in every sense of the word. What preoccupies my thought with great interest is the fact that Mother Mary was first and foremost a human being,and because she came from this world and not from heaven. I don't take issue in the fact that she deserves special mention and favor from God because she was chosen to bore the child Jesus. but we cant take away the fact that she has still that human element in her in bearing the child Jesus. Granting that she has the blessing from God, she still can't escape the fact that she undergoes what other human beings undergo when it involves the child bearing process.

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Re: How did the Church Fathers explain the perpetual virginity of Mary?
« Reply #14 on: November 24, 2012, 01:12:59 AM »
With all due respect sir, i can see how well versed you are with regards to Mary, Mother of Jesus our saviour. I for one don't go against for most of what has been said about mary which is justifiable in every sense of the word. What preoccupies my thought with great interest is the fact that Mother Mary was first and foremost a human being,and because she came from this world and not from heaven. I don't take issue in the fact that she deserves special mention and favor from God because she was chosen to bore the child Jesus. but we cant take away the fact that she has still that human element in her in bearing the child Jesus. Granting that she has the blessing from God, she still can't escape the fact that she undergoes what other human beings undergo when it involves the child bearing process.

My friend,

Trust me, I myself had come to an impasse many times in my own faith life. Speaking as a medical doctor and one who deals with diseases of the body, and performing surgeries on patients. As a physician, I cannot help but always ask, "How? Why does this happen? How can it happen?"

But you see, when one examines the Holy Scriptures , one must realize that it is through the Power of God that even nature and science will kneel before The Will of God. When we read Mark Chapter 4, we are reminded that while Jesus slept in the boat, a great storm rose up and alarmed the apostles. Jesus Christ woke up and by the power of His word, calmed the seas. In order for a storm to form several different factors must come together. The water must be over 28C (80F) and deep enough to provide the energy needed to power the storm. The depth required is unknown but the warmer the water the less the depth that is required as more energy is held in the water: the minimum depth required appears to be fifty metres. Once a storm forms, it will continue on its path until the energy within the storm has been used up.

The laws of physics that are necessary to explain a storm's formation cannot explain how Christ calms the storm by merely commanding it to cease. This shows to us, my friend, that Christ is above the law of nature, the laws of science. By merely commanding it to stop, he negated all the energies that was within that storm.

If God, who can calm the storms by his mere breath, can he not maintain the virginity of Mary? We are reminded by Archangel Gabriel who said to Mary regarding Elizabeth's pregnancy despite her hold age:

For nothing is impossible with God.
-Luke 1:37


Sincerely,
Lorenzo

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Re: How did the Church Fathers explain the perpetual virginity of Mary?
« Reply #15 on: November 24, 2012, 04:35:32 AM »
It is quite irresistible to make an argument about what God can and cannot do. but be that as it may, with God all things are possible.

I may have to stick with my appraisal though that Mary is first and foremost a human being. That she underwent what the rest of us feel and go through in the rigorous biological process called life. It is only when God intervened that her life was exalted, but i believe that God is a reasonable God. He won't take away what Mother Mary was as a human being from the outset. Regardless of what God can do, he won't do something like a magician's trick to make a fool of ourselves into thinking that Mary was a product from heaven and all of these was already a hatch out plan from the beginning.

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Re: How did the Church Fathers explain the perpetual virginity of Mary?
« Reply #16 on: November 24, 2012, 05:36:13 AM »
After the birth of Jesus, Joseph and Mary bore other sons, who are the human brothers of Jesus. This has been mentioned in the Bible several times.

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Lorenzo

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Re: How did the Church Fathers explain the perpetual virginity of Mary?
« Reply #17 on: November 25, 2012, 12:47:30 PM »
After the birth of Jesus, Joseph and Mary bore other sons, who are the human brothers of Jesus. This has been mentioned in the Bible several times.

The Greek word for brother in the New Testament is adelphos. The well-known Protestant linguistic reference An Expository Dictionary of New Testament Words [by W. E. Vine], defines it as follows:

Adelphos: denotes a brother, or near kinsman; in the plural, a community based on identity of origin or life. It is used of:

1. male children of the same parents . . .

2. male descendants of the same parents, Acts 7:23, 26; Hebrews 7:5; . . .

4. people of the same nationality, Acts 3:17, 22; Romans 9:3 . . .

5. any man, a neighbour, Luke 10:29; Matthew 5:22, 7:3;

6. persons united by a common interest, Matthew 5:47;

7. persons united by a common calling, Revelation 22:9;

8. mankind, Matthew 25:40; Hebrews 2:17;

9. the disciples, and so, by implication, all believers, Matthew 28:10; John 20:17;

10. believers, apart from sex, Matthew 23:8; Acts 1:15; Romans 1:13; 1 Thessalonians 1:4; Revelation 19:10 (the word sisters is used of believers, only in 1 Timothy 5:2) . . . 202

[202 Vine, An Expository Dictionary of New Testament Words, Vol. 1, 154-155.]


It is evident, therefore, from the range of possible definitions of adelphos, that Jesus' "brothers" need not necessarily be siblings of Jesus on linguistic grounds, as many commentators, learned and unlearned, seem to assume uncritically. By examining the use of adelphos and related words in Hebrew, and by comparing Scripture with Scripture ("exegesis"), one can determine the most sensible explanation of all the biblical data taken collectively. Many examples prove that adelphos has a very wide variety of meanings:

* In the King James Version, Jacob is called the "brother" of his Uncle Laban (Gen. 29:15; 29:10). The same thing occurs with regard to Lot and Abraham (Gen. 14:14 / 11:26-27). The Revised Standard Version uses "kinsman" at 29:15 and 14:14.

* Use of brother or brethren for mere kinsmen: Deuteronomy 23:7, 2 Samuel 1:26, 1 Kings 9:13, 20:32, 2 Kings 10:13-14, Jeremiah 34:9, Amos 1:9.

* Neither Hebrew nor Aramaic has a word for cousin. Although the New Testament was written in Greek, which does have such a word, the literal rendering of the Hebrew word ach, which was used by the first disciples and Jesus, is indeed adelphos, the literal equivalent of the English "brother." But even in English, brother has multiple meanings as well.

----------


Moving on to more direct biblical evidences of the perpetual virginity of Mary, we discover the following facts:

* In Luke 2:41-51: the story of Mary and Joseph taking Jesus to the Temple at the age of twelve, it is fairly obvious that Jesus is the only child. Since everyone agrees he was the first child of Mary, if there were up to five or more siblings, as some maintain (arguing, for example, from Matthew 13:55), they were nowhere to be found at this time. This passage alone furnishes a strong argument for the implausibility of the "literal brothers" theory.

* Jesus Himself uses brethren in the larger sense. In Matthew 23:8 He calls the "crowds" and His "disciples" (23:1) "brethren." In other words, they are each other's "brothers" (that is, the brotherhood of Christians). In Matthew 12:49-50 he calls his disciples and all who do the will of his Father "my brothers."

* By comparing Matthew 27:56, Mark 15:40, and John 19:25, we find that James and Joseph -- mentioned in Matthew 13:55 with Simon and Jude as Jesus' "brothers" -- are also called sons of Mary, wife of Clopas. This other Mary (Matthew 27:61, 28:1) is called Our Lady's adelphe in John 19:25 (it isn't likely that there were two women named "Mary" in one family -- thus even this usage apparently means "cousin" or more distant relative). Matthew 13:55-56 and Mark 6:3 mention Simon, Jude and "sisters" along with James and Joseph, calling all adelphoi. Since we know for sure that at least James and Joseph are not Jesus' blood brothers, the most likely interpretation of Matthew 13:55 is that all these "brothers" are cousins, according to the linguistic conventions discussed above. At the very least, the term brother is not determinative in and of itself.
* Firstborn: the use of this term to assert that Mary had "second-borns" and "third-borns" proves nothing, since the primary meaning of the Greek prototokos is "pre-eminent". To illustrate: David is described by God as the firstborn, the highest of the kings of the earth (Ps. 89:27). Likewise, God refers to Ephraim (Jeremiah 31:9) and the nation Israel (Exod. 4:22) as "my firstborn." Jesus is called "the firstborn of all creation" in Colossians 1:15, meaning, according to all reputable Greek lexicons, that he was pre-eminent over creation, that is, the Creator. The Jewish rabbinical writers even called God the Father Bekorah Shelolam, meaning "firstborn". Similarly, God is called the "first" in Scripture (Isa. 41:4; 44:6; 48:12; cf. Rev. 1:8; 21:6-7). Christians are called "the firstborn" in Hebrews 12:23. Literally speaking, however, among the Jews, the firstborn was ordinarily the child who was first to open the womb (Exod. 13:2), whether there were other children or not. This is probably the meaning of Matthew 1:25, in which case hypothetical younger children of Mary are not implied at all, contrary to the standard present-day Protestant assertions.

* Mary is committed to the care of the Apostle John by Jesus from the Cross (John 19:26-27). Many Protestant interpreters agree with the Catholic view that Jesus likely would not have done this if he had brothers (who would all have been younger than he was). Many Church Fathers held this interpretation, including St. Athanasius, St. Epiphanius, St. Hilary, St. Jerome, and St. Ambrose, and used it in the defense of Mary's perpetual virginity.

* Catholics believe that Mary's reply to the angel Gabriel's announcement that she would bear the Messiah, at the Annunciation -- "How can this be, since I have no husband?" (Luke 1:34) -- indicates a prior vow of perpetual virginity. St. Augustine, in his work Holy Virginity (4, 4), wrote: "Surely, she would not say, 'How shall this be?' unless she had already vowed herself to God as a virgin . . . If she intended to have intercourse, she wouldn't have asked this question!"



Reference:
http://socrates58.blogspot.com/2010/02/biblical-evidence-for-perpetual.html

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Lorenzo

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Re: How did the Church Fathers explain the perpetual virginity of Mary?
« Reply #18 on: November 25, 2012, 12:57:27 PM »
It is quite irresistible to make an argument about what God can and cannot do. but be that as it may, with God all things are possible.

I may have to stick with my appraisal though that Mary is first and foremost a human being. That she underwent what the rest of us feel and go through in the rigorous biological process called life. It is only when God intervened that her life was exalted, but i believe that God is a reasonable God. He won't take away what Mother Mary was as a human being from the outset. Regardless of what God can do, he won't do something like a magician's trick to make a fool of ourselves into thinking that Mary was a product from heaven and all of these was already a hatch out plan from the beginning.

Because the Good Lord is wise and because His providence echoes from age to age, it was already prepared that Mary, the daughter of Anne, would bear the Christ Child. Because of her role as Co-Redemptrix, bearing the Christ Child, played a pivotal role in Salvation History, Mary was conceived without sin.

From her breast,  the Creator of The Universe, Jesus Christ, would suckle on and be fed. From her womb, the Divine Word entered the world. Hers is the role of great importance in God's Salvation Plan.

It cannot be stressed enough of the pertinence of Mary in Salvation History. This is the reason why Holy Mother Church reserves the right to venerate Mary, The Mother of God. This is the very reason why Holy Mother Church has time and time again teaches of the Perpetual Virginity of Mother Mary for the past 2 millennia. Because of Mary's role and importance, this is why Holy Mother Church also educates the faithful on Mary's Assumption (Body and Soul) to heaven, which is celebrated on August 15.



Blessings and Peace.

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fdaray

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Re: How did the Church Fathers explain the perpetual virginity of Mary?
« Reply #19 on: November 27, 2012, 09:00:05 AM »
After the birth of Jesus, Joseph and Mary bore other sons, who are the human brothers of Jesus. This has been mentioned in the Bible several times.

Yes, i confirm. THe Doctrine of Immaculate Conception that says Mary was virgin was formulated by man. Its not found in the Bible. Mary and Joseph lived a happy marriage life. It would be very impossible that they lived  a sexless life.

Si Kristo matuod nga Diyos og matuod nga tawo. Sa iyang pagka Diyos way labot si Mary. Sa iyang pagkatawhanon, she is the mother of Jesus.

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Lorenzo

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Re: How did the Church Fathers explain the perpetual virginity of Mary?
« Reply #20 on: November 27, 2012, 11:22:13 AM »
Yes, i confirm. THe Doctrine of Immaculate Conception that says Mary was virgin was formulated by man. Its not found in the Bible. Mary and Joseph lived a happy marriage life. It would be very impossible that they lived  a sexless life.

Si Kristo matuod nga Diyos og matuod nga tawo. Sa iyang pagka Diyos way labot si Mary. Sa iyang pagkatawhanon, she is the mother of Jesus.

#1: Mary is Full of Grace


Luke 1:28 [RSV]: "And he came to her and said, 'Hail, full of grace, the Lord is with you!'"

The term traditionally translated "full of grace" or "highly favored" is κεχαριτωμένη or kecharitomene. This perfect passive participle form denotes something that happened in the past and continues into the present. She was perfectly graced in the past and continues in that state. Luke 1:28 has served as the locus classicus for the doctrine of the Immaculate Conception of Our Lady.


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Lorenzo

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Re: How did the Church Fathers explain the perpetual virginity of Mary?
« Reply #21 on: November 27, 2012, 11:22:52 AM »
#2: Mary as New Eve Having Enmity with Satan

Gen 3:15 "And I will put enmity between you and the woman, and between your seed and her Seed; He shall crush your head, and you shall strike at His heel."

In this verse God addresses Satan. The Seed here is Christ. The Woman is His Mother, that is, Mary. Thus Satan has perfect enmity with Christ and with His Mother. The Catholic Church has interpreted this as indicating the sinlessness of Christ and Mary. If either actually committed sin, then they would not be at enmity with Satan but actually a cooperator with Satan at times.


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Re: How did the Church Fathers explain the perpetual virginity of Mary?
« Reply #22 on: November 27, 2012, 11:24:07 AM »
#3: Mary as Ark of the Covenant

In the Old Covenant the Ark of the Covenant contained the Word of God on stone. In the New Covenant, the Word made Flesh was also contained - and that in the womb of the Blessed Virgin. The Catholic Church has therefore understood Mary as the mystical Ark of the New Covenant. This connection is made in the book of Revelation.

Rev 11:19-12:2 Then God's temple in heaven was opened, and the ark of his covenant was seen within his temple; and there were flashes of lightning, voices, peals of thunder, an earthquake, and heavy hail. And a great portent appeared in heaven, a woman clothed with the sun, with the moon under her feet, and on her head a crown of twelve stars; she was with child.


The Ark of the Covenant appears in Heaven and then in the next breath (and next verse) St John describes a pregnant woman appearing in Heaven. This Woman "contains" the Messiah.

The thinking goes that if Mary is the fulfillment of the Ark of the Covenant, then she must be "all holy". Remember that in the Old Covenant a man was killed for touching the ark. It was holy. If the box that held stone tablets was so restricted - so also would be the woman who actually carried God Himself. And so she is all pure and all holy, without the stain of sin.


Reference:
Marshall, Taylor. (2009). The Crucified Rabbi: Judaism and the Origins of Catholic Christianity. St. John Press.
www.taylormarshall.com

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Lorenzo

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Re: How did the Church Fathers explain the perpetual virginity of Mary?
« Reply #23 on: November 27, 2012, 11:35:12 AM »
Yes, i confirm. THe Doctrine of Immaculate Conception that says Mary was virgin was formulated by man. Its not found in the Bible. Mary and Joseph lived a happy marriage life. It would be very impossible that they lived  a sexless life.

Si Kristo matuod nga Diyos og matuod nga tawo. Sa iyang pagka Diyos way labot si Mary. Sa iyang pagkatawhanon, she is the mother of Jesus.

The Doctrine of Immaculate Conception has been professed by Holy Mother Church for over 2 millenia. All scripture supports this. I would remind you, Mr. Daray, that the protestant bible is the incomplete and adulterated version of the Roman Catholic Bible. The former is devoid of 7 books that the heretic, Martin Luther, removed. Incidentally, the 7 books that were removed also supports the Sacramental Truths. I would invite you, Mr. Daray, to read the unblemished version of Holy Scripture, the Roman Catholic Bible.

God Bless.



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Lorenzo

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Re: How did the Church Fathers explain the perpetual virginity of Mary?
« Reply #24 on: November 27, 2012, 11:57:01 AM »
The Immaculate Conception


WHAT IS THE POINT OF THIS DOCTRINE?


It has to do with the Holiness of God. God cannot tolerate Sin. Mary as the God-bearer in Jesus had to be sinless in order to be in such close proximity to God Himself. The whole Bible teaches that God's presence demands and imparts holiness. (Ex 3:5; Deut 23:14; 1 Cor 3:17; 1 Jn 3:5-6; Rev 21:27). The Jewish high priest entered the Holy of Holies only once a year, under threat of death if God's instructions were violated (Lev 16:2-4,13). The Ark itself was so holy that only a few were allowed to touch it (Num 4:15; 2 Sam 6:2-7). Thus, Mary, due to her physical and spiritual relationship with God, necessarily had to be granted the grace of sinlessness.

In other words, since Jesus took flesh in and from Mary's body, and also obtained His Human Nature from Her, she had to be perfectly sinless. The only question that then arises is when and how Mary was made sinless.

Protestants are quite willing to admit that we are cleansed of our sins at baptism. Yet Mary could not have been baptised at the time of the Annunciation, or even Jesus's birth. For this reason her sinlessness had to come in a special and unique manner. To be pure and free from all sin as God required, she had not only to be free of sin at one point in time, (as one is immediately after baptism,) but to remain sinless throughout her life.

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Lorenzo

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Re: How did the Church Fathers explain the perpetual virginity of Mary?
« Reply #25 on: November 27, 2012, 12:00:00 PM »
BUT I'VE BEEN TOLD THAT "FULL OF GRACE" IS A MISTRANSLATION. MY BIBLE SAYS "HIGHLY-FAVOURED".


I'm afraid that those who translate the angel's greeting as "highly-favoured" have been guilty, for whatever motive, of making a false and rather misleading distinction. The Greek word used by the angel is Kecharitomene. The root of this word is Charis, meaning Grace. The prefix Ke means that the grace was already perfectly present before the angel appeared. The suffix mene means that Mary was the recipient of this grace.

Now Charis can also be translated simply as favour. So Highly-favoured could be a conceivable translation - but this would only be acceptable if the word "favour" were used as a translation for "Charis" everywhere else in the New Testament. But THIS DOES NOT HAPPEN. Even those bibles which translate "Charis" as Favour" when referring to Mary, translate it as "Grace" everywhere else. This is highly misleading because in the New Testament the word "Grace" has a particular meaning distinct from "Favour". In the New Testament "Grace" is a gift of God that saves from sin and its effects. So translating the word any differently is wrong. The correct translation is rightfully "Full of Grace".




Reference:
http://www.ourladyweb.com/mary-defended.html#5

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Lorenzo

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Re: How did the Church Fathers explain the perpetual virginity of Mary?
« Reply #26 on: November 27, 2012, 12:10:05 PM »
What did Martin Luther, the father of protestantism, have to say about the Doctrine of Immaculate Conception? Perpetual Virginity?

Martin Luther said:

She became the Mother of God, in which work so many and such great good things are bestowed on her as pass man's understanding. For on this there follows all honor, all blessedness, and her unique place in the whole of mankind, among which she has no equal, namely, that she had a child by the Father in heaven, and such a Child.... Hence men have crowded all her glory into a single word, calling her the Mother of God.... None can say of her nor announce to her greater things, even though he had as many tongues as the earth possesses flowers and blades of grass: the sky, stars; and the sea, grains of sand. It needs to be pondered in the heart what it means to be the Mother of God.

This belief was officially confessed by Lutherans in their Formula of Concord, Solid Declaration, article VIII.24:

On account of this personal union and communion of the natures, Mary, the most blessed virgin, did not conceive a mere, ordinary human being, but a human being who is truly the Son of the most high God, as the angel testifies. He demonstrated his divine majesty even in his mother’s womb in that he was born of a virgin without violating her virginity. Therefore she is truly the mother of God and yet remained a virgin.


Reference:
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Lutheran_Marian_theology

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Lorenzo

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Re: How did the Church Fathers explain the perpetual virginity of Mary?
« Reply #27 on: November 27, 2012, 12:15:35 PM »
What did Martin Luther, the father of protestantism, have to say about the Doctrine of Immaculate Conception?



When concentrating specifically on Mary herself as the Mother of God, Luther acknowledges God's singular action in bringing her into the world, but in making general comments about the universality of human sinfulness, he includes her among all the rest of humanity:

Mother Mary, like us, was born in sin of sinful parents, but the Holy Spirit covered her, sanctified and purified her so that this child was born of flesh and blood, but not with sinful flesh and blood. The Holy Spirit permitted the Virgin Mary to remain a true, natural human being of flesh and blood, just as we. However, he warded off sin from her flesh and blood so that she became the mother of a pure child, not poisoned by sin as we are. For in that moment when she conceived, she was a holy mother filled with the Holy Spirit and her fruit is a holy pure fruit, at once God and truly man, in one person."


Reference:
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Lutheran_Marian_theology

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Re: How did the Church Fathers explain the perpetual virginity of Mary?
« Reply #28 on: November 27, 2012, 12:19:50 PM »
Luther yet again makes the following statement regarding the Immaculate Conception of Our Lady:


It is a sweet and pious belief that the infusion of Mary’s soul was effected without original sin; so that in the very infusion of her soul she was also purified from original sin and adorned with God’s gifts, receiving a pure soul infused by God; thus from the first moment she began to live she was free from all sin.

(Sermon: “On the Day of the Conception of the Mother of God,” December 1527; from Hartmann Grisar, S.J., from the German Werke, Erlangen, 1826-1868, edited by J.G. Plochmann and J.A. Irmischer)



and,


[She is the] highest woman and the noblest gem in Christianity after Christ . . . She is nobility, wisdom, and holiness personified. We can never honor her enough. Still honor and praise must be given to her in such a way as to injure neither Christ nor the Scriptures.

(Sermon, Christmas, 1531)



Retrieved from:
http://bfhu.wordpress.com/2007/12/12/martin-luther-believed-in-marys-immaculate-conception/

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Lorenzo

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Re: How did the Church Fathers explain the perpetual virginity of Mary?
« Reply #29 on: November 27, 2012, 12:22:10 PM »
Mr. Daray,

Please note that Martin Luther, the man who was responsible for removing the 7 books from the Holy Bible and renamed it the 'Protestant Holy Bible' , had the following views regarding Mary and the Immaculate Conception as well as the Perpetual Virginity of Mary. The bible that you read is the one that was a product of Luther's editing.

Even the editor of the Bible and the creator of the Protestant Holy Bible manifests veneration for the Immaculate Nature of Mary. Despite his heresy, he still maintains a sense of Marian veneration.



God Bless !

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fdaray

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Re: How did the Church Fathers explain the perpetual virginity of Mary?
« Reply #30 on: November 27, 2012, 12:47:34 PM »
Mr. Daray,

Please note that Martin Luther, the man who was responsible for removing the 7 books from the Holy Bible and renamed it the 'Protestant Holy Bible' , had the following views regarding Mary and the Immaculate Conception as well as the Perpetual Virginity of Mary. The bible that you read is the one that was a product of Luther's editing.

Even the editor of the Bible and the creator of the Protestant Holy Bible manifests veneration for the Immaculate Nature of Mary. Despite his heresy, he still maintains a sense of Marian veneration.


Palihog ipakita ang verse nga nag-ingon 'perpetual virginity' ni Mary. Walay "Protestant Bible,". We used the KIng James VErsion.
Walay mabasa nga Immaculate Conception sa Bible kay mugna ra na sa tawo.It's a doctrine of Man, not Biblical.



God Bless !

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Re: How did the Church Fathers explain the perpetual virginity of Mary?
« Reply #31 on: November 27, 2012, 01:10:28 PM »
Mr. Daray stated:

Walay "Protestant Bible,". We used the KIng James VErsion.
Walay mabasa nga Immaculate Conception sa Bible kay mugna ra na sa tawo.It's a doctrine of Man, not Biblical.


There are many variants of the protestant bible, the most widely used by many protestant denominations is the King James Bible, which is based on the Textus Receptus, based on Erasmus' writings. The leaders of many major protestant churches such as John Calvin (father of Calvinism), Martin Luther (father of the Lutheran church), as well as John Wesley (father of the United Methodist Church) all maintain the theological notion of Mary's Perpetual Virginity.

Holy Mother Church, as the bride of Christ, is not of man, but of God. Christ Himself established Holy Mother Church and appointed Peter, Petros, as the Rock on which the Church stands. The Doctrine has been professed for over 2000 years. 1500 years before the Protestant Bibles, including the King James Version, even came to being, the Doctrine of Mary's Perpetual Virginity was already preached.

Even your brother protestants, namely the Calvinists, the Methodists and the Lutherans, hold the same veneration for Mary's Perpetual Virginity.


God Bless !



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Re: How did the Church Fathers explain the perpetual virginity of Mary?
« Reply #32 on: November 27, 2012, 01:27:53 PM »
Mr Daray stated:

Palihog ipakita ang verse nga nag-ingon 'perpetual virginity' ni Mary.


Answer:

Our Lady is referred as the ARK OF THE COVENANT.

In fact, there is a direct new testament verse that refers to her , found in the book of revelations:

18 The nations raged, but thy wrath came, and the time for the dead to be judged, for rewarding thy servants, the prophets and saints, and those who fear thy name, both small and great, and for destroying the destroyers of the earth." 19 Then God's temple in heaven was opened, and the ark of his covenant was seen within his temple; and there were flashes of lightning, voices, peals of thunder, an earthquake, and heavy hail. 1 And a great portent appeared in heaven, a woman clothed with the sun, with the moon under her feet, and on her head a crown of twelve stars; 2 she was with child and she cried out in her pangs of birth, in anguish for delivery.

-Revelation 11:18-12-2


Our Blessed Mother, is referred to directly here as the Ark of His Covenant. The Ark of the Covenant is pure, unblemished, and spotless. This is the basis of the Doctrine of Immaculate Conception and Perpetual Virginity of Blessed Mother Mary.

The thinking goes that if Mary is the fulfillment of the Ark of the Covenant, then she must be "all holy". Remember that in the Old Covenant a man was killed for touching the ark. It was holy. If the box that held stone tablets was so restricted - so also would be the woman who actually carried God Himself. And so she is all pure and all holy, without the stain of sin.



God Bless!

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